Oh, do you? Thanks for sharing. Let's work on you logic skills a minute, shall we?

Given that the gender split in hominids is roughly 50/50, is it not reasonable to assume that when someone says "the vast majority" then the only way to get a "vast majority" in a 50/50 population would be if if that "vast majority" included men?

Granted, "vast majority" is a rhetorical term, but you don't often find many people using the words "vast majority" to describe less than 80%. After all, it's not a narrow majority. It's a v-a-s-t majority. It's got to be a majority by a very great amount, extent, or range in order to earn the word 'vast'.

So. When someone says "vast majority" of a population, half of which is male and half of which is female, and we're talking about male violence within a population of hominids, may we not logically infer using basic math and basic common sense that they're talking about pretty much all the females and also MORE THAN HALF the males? Don't strain yourself or anything, stick with the basics.

May we not justify that sound application of rational thought by recalling that although male on female homicide and other violence is the biggest threat to women's lives that by the numbers, males murder more males in acts of violence?

Maybe you should spend less time worrying about my supposed "fear-seeking" relationship with media and more on your reading comprehension skills. Just a friendly suggestion. Since we're sharing like that. Alternately, maybe practice your gaslighting somewhere else. You're clearly out of your league.