Of course not. They don't mean the same thing and don't have to be based in the same parameters.

If I come home and my dog is already at the door and starts begging to be taken out, I can infer that my daughter is not home. If my dog comes to greet me from the back, I can infer that my daughter is home.

That's how inference works.

Let's apply to the article and Human Revolution's comment. The article states both that men need help and that they are incapable of developing what they are lacking on their own (this part was implied). The point of asking for help is to receive help. If men cannot help themselves, then the help must come from women.

Ergo, to state that men need help and also state that they have no means or ability to help themselves or each other is to, without expressly stating so, place the burden of care, cleanup, and labor required to help them onto women for the very simple fact that there is no one else capable of doing it.

The ONLY other group is children. Do men need children to help them be men? Is that what we are to suppose?